[R-G] How Good Was the Good War?
Aaron Aarons
listsubs at aarons.f-m.fm
Mon Aug 4 05:55:26 MDT 2008
>Date: Sun, 03 Aug 2008 19:12:49 -0400
>From: Intense Red <intnsred at golgotha.net>
>
>On Sunday 03 August 2008 17:57, Aaron wrote:
> > And, as in 1938, the appeasers (Russia, China, the E.U.) have overlapping,
> > though partly conflicting, interests with those they are appeasing.
>
> Ignoring the fact that the entire WWII "appeasement" angle has been heavily
>warped in US "popular history" -- as opposed to what happened pre-WWII -- the
>analogy above is flawed.
>
> Pre-WWII, the USSR was not on the side of appeasement. The USSR tried to
>get an alliance going with France and the British empire to defend
>Czechoslovakia but the western powers refused. Stalin made the non-aggression
>pact with Hitler that split Poland only after the west sold out Czechoslovakia.
I certainly couldn't have meant that "Russia, China, the E.U." were "appeasers" in 1938, since the E.U. didn't even exist at the time and China had already been invaded by Nazi Germany's ally! I was referring to them as the main present day "appeasers" of the new Axis powers: the U.S. and Israel. I don't think "appeasement" is a very useful concept, but I like to turn it around against those who use it to attack those who refuse to join their imperial projects.
- Aaron
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