[Marxism] against diversity

Aaron Aarons aaron at mylists.fastmail.fm
Tue Sep 30 03:54:12 MDT 2008


How do those statistics you, "Ruthless", quote show that I am wrong? What specifically do they contradict in what I wrote?

Please keep in mind that my sentence before the one beginning with "If being more concerned ..." was the following:

"This is most blatantly obvious in the case of South Africa, where formal racial equality has been accompanied by a sharp increase in real racial *inequality* and, in fact, an absolute as well as relative decline in the material conditions of the Black masses."

The point is that my argument about the increase in real racial inequality was more categorically about South Africa than the U.S..

 - Aaron



>Date: Tue, 30 Sep 2008 01:52:08 -0400
>From: "Ruthless Critic of All that Exists" <ok.president+marxml at gmail.com>
>
>On Mon, Sep 29, 2008 at 4:57 AM, Aaron Aarons <aaron at mylists.fastmail.fm> wrote:
>>>From: "Joaquin Bustelo" <jbustelo at gmail.com>
>>>
>>>Aaron writes, "Just sticking to the racism issue for a moment, it's clear
>>>that limited victories over *formal* white supremacy have gone hand-in-hand
>>>with the strengthening of *real* white supremacy."
>>>
>>>I'm going to duck out of this debate with Aaron. I've got no time for
>>>economist fools who think that's what's happened in the U.S. or South Africa
> >>is a strengthening of "*real* white supremacy."

Ruthless didn't quote the following sentence, which provides the context for the one after it that he did quote:

"This is most blatantly obvious in the case of South Africa, where formal racial equality has been accompanied by a sharp increase in real racial *inequality* and, in fact, an absolute as well as relative decline in the material conditions of the Black masses."

> > If being more concerned with the material conditions of life of the Black masses than with the ability of a layer of Black bourgeoisie to share in the fruits of exploitation of those masses makes me "economist", so be it.
>
>Aaron is wrong.

How do the following statistics show that I am wrong? What specifically do they contradict in what I wrote?

>"The black-white family income ratio for married couple families rose
>from .75 in 1990 to .82 in 1995 and fell to .75 in 1999. The
>black-white family income ratio for male-householders with no wife
>present rose from .60 in 1990 to .69 in 1995 and fell again to .66 in
>1999. The black-white family income ratio for female householders,
>with no husband present, was about the same in 1990 and 1995 (falling
>slightly from .7206 to .7172) but then fell from 1995 to 1999,
>reaching a low of .70."

Incidentally, I wonder if the figures for single male and female householders would be the same if one included the sharply increased number of households that consist of a prison cell. That is one aspect of the immiseration of the Black population that doesn't generally show up in income statistics.

><http://www.hhh.umn.edu/centers/wilkins/pdf/decline_blkfamily_incomes_2000.pdf>
[I made the reference into a clickable link. -- Aaron]



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