[Marxism] Stiglitz's "quasi-marxist answer"

[Anon Anon]

Yes, well of course Stiglitz is "quasi-marxist"...that
is, if you think Douglass North can explain
development in the third world (why anyone calling
themself a Marxist would think that is beyond
me)...with that line of thought our old friend John
Maynard K. is also "quasi-marxist"...I have little
time for Stiglitz, he plays the same role for
Columbia/Harvard as George Soros or Warren Buffett do
for Wall Street...the English have a great term for
this: "Loyal Opposition". 


Ruthless Critic of All that Exists" quoted:

"Why, over time, did some countries get rich and
others stay poor? His implicit, quasi-Marxist answer
is that it was because the rich exploited the poor. An
alternative, and to my mind superior, approach,
pioneered by Douglass North, is that countries now
rich developed institutions superior to those of
countries that stayed poor, and that the gap in
economic development between different parts of the
world had already emerged by the eighteenth century.
[...]"

Full: <http://www.nybooks.com/articles/21259>

Gloomy About Globalization
By Robert Skidelsky



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